Friday, February 10, 2012

Strong’s Concordance
By
Lee
Tuesday, February 7, 2012


The Strong’s concordance can be used as a tool to help us understand the meaning of a Greek or Hebrew word in scripture.  One thing must always be remembered when using a concordance, it is not the inspired word of God and is in fact a very poor work that is in need of improvement.  Many use the concordance as though it is inspired and select a given meaning listed to define and interpret the meaning of scripture.  This is a common and spiritually fatal error.  Any word meaning from a concordance must fit with the text or story given in scripture.  Here is an example.

KJV John 1:1-5
 1.  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
 2.  The same was in the beginning with God.
 3.  All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
 4.  In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
 5.  And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

The above verses use the pronoun “him” in describing the “word” of God.  Below is the Strong’s article used.

Strong's Ref. # 846

Romanized  autos
Pronounced ow-tos'
from the particle au [perhaps akin to the base of GSN0109 through the idea of a baffling wind] (backward); the reflexive pronoun self, used (alone or in the comparative GSN1438) of the third person , and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons:

KJV--her, it(-self), one, the other, (mine) own, said, ([self-], the) same, ([him-, my-, thy- ])self, [your-]selves, she, that, their(-s), them([-selves]), there[-at, - by, -in, -into, -of, -on, -with], they, (these) things, this (man), those, together, very, which. Compare GSN0848.

This is total confusion.  There is no way that the above description can of itself be used to determine the meaning of the word “autos” as it needs to understood in the scripture.  You see how there are many words given by the concordance but which one will be true to the message of the scripture?

The word “it” below is the same word “autos” as was used to mean “him” in verses 1-4 of John 1:1-5.

 5.  And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

Here is Young’s literal version of John 1:1-5.

LIT John 1:1-5
 1.
   |1722| In
   |9999| {the}
   |0746| beginning
   |2258| was
   |3588| the
   |3056| Word,
   |2532| and
   |3588| the
   |3056| Word
   |2258| was
   |4314| with
   |3588| -
   |2316| God,
   |2532| and
   |2316| deity
   |2258| was
   |3588| the
   |3056| Word.
 2.
   |3778| This One (Why wasn’t the word used here “him”or “he”) if “him” was used in the other verses? This word “one” can also mean “it” according to Strong’s, check it for yourself.
   |2258| was
   |1722| in
   |0746| beginning
   |4314| with
   |3588| -
   |2316| God.
 3.
   |3956| All things
   |1223| through
   |0846| him            “autos”  here is the male pronoun
   |1096| existed,
   |2532| and
   |5565| without
   |0846| him             “autos” again
   |1096| existed
   |3761| not even
   |1520| one
   |3739| that
   |1096| has come to exist.
 4.
   |1722| In
   |0846| him              “autos” again
   |2222| life
   |2258| was,
   |2532| and
   |3588| the
   |2222| life
   |2258| was
   |3588| the
   |5457| light
   |0444| of men,
 5.
   |2532| and
   |3588| the
   |5457| light
   |1722| in
   |3588| the
   |4653| darkness
   |5316| shines,
   |2532| and
   |3588| the
   |4653| darkness
   |0846| it            Here the same article # 0846 is rendered “it”
   |3756| not
   |2638| did overtake.

Why would the same article #0846 be translated “him” in one case but “it” in another?  Is the word an “it” or a “him”?  If we examine the text, the story,  God spoke a word in the beginning and by that word created all things and was the life and light of men who did not comprehend the word.  This makes far more sense that trying to make a word a person by applying the male pronoun “him”.  Darkness did not comprehend “him” but “it”. A word is not literally a person but a person can speak a word, a word is an “it” but a person is a “him” or “her” according to Strong’s article #0846. 

God sent His son into the world to speak His words.

KJV John 3:34
 34.  For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.

KJV John 8:47
 47.  He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.

KJV John 14:10
10.  Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

KJV John 17:8
 8.  For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.

Jesus was not the word that was spoken by God in the beginning, those words were of God Himself.  Jesus was sent to repeat those words to us as a spokesman of God and in this sense only was the word made flesh.  A man of flesh, Jesus, was sent to speak the words of God, the words God spoke in the beginning.  Even the prophets of old fit this idea.  Jesus did not speak the word in the beginning, God did, but darkness did not understand the word.  Jesus was a great light that came to the darkness of this world to speak the words of his Father and God and these words were not of Jesus but of the Father.

KJV John 12:49
 49.  For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.


KJV John 7:16-17
 16.  Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.
 17.  If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

KJV John 14:24
 24.  He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.

Jesus came not to speak his own words but the words his Father and God spoke in the beginning. I have placed into the verses below the proper word that should have been used “it” instead of the wrong word “him”.

KJV John 1:1-5
 1.  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
 2.  The same ( or it) was in the beginning with God.
 3.  All things were made by it; and without it was not any thing made that was made.
 4.  In it was life; and the life was the light of men.
 5.  And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

For those who are able to see, Jesus was not God but Gods son sent to speak Gods word that God spoke in the beginning.

KJV Hebrews 1:1-2
1.  God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
 2.  Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

There are thousands of errors in understanding scripture because of misuse of Strong’s concordance.   I stand firm by my statement that the Strong’s concordance or any other concordance is not the inspired word of God and is in fact a very poor work of carnal minds.  Many use the concordance to establish false doctrines and teachings by putting in a word that agrees with their own ideas and thinking rather than the thought being expressed in  scripture.  Words are extremely important and we had better be sure of how we use them.

KJV Matthew 12:36-37
 36.  But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment.
 37.  For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned.

No comments:

Post a Comment